Earlier today Roger Helmer, a Conservative MEP, asked this extraordinary question.
My instant action was dismissive: there is no connection between the two.
Helmer is confusing the distinct issues of gender identity and sexual preference.
Furthermore, the reference to "turning" appears to be predicated on an incorrect view of sexual preferences: even a person's "consent" would not seem to make such a treatment appropriate.
However, before one dismisses his question out of hand, it may be worthwhile seeing what the best answer to his question could be.
What do you think?
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